LUMS LCAT Practice Questions — Undergraduate Entry Test

These are 50 practice questions in the style of the LUMS LCAT paper, drawn from the official syllabus topics (SAT-style verbal reasoning and mathematics). They are practice questions, not real past-paper questions. Every answer is a standard textbook fact. The LCAT is a paper-based, SAT-style test of 4 sections — 2 Verbal and 2 Mathematics — 40 minutes each, about 3 hours in total, with no calculators allowed. Verbal covers reading comprehension, vocabulary in context, grammar and Standard English Conventions; Mathematics covers Algebra, Advanced Mathematics, Problem-Solving and Data Analysis, Geometry and Trigonometry. LUMS publishes no official question count, marking scheme, negative-marking rule or pass marks, and LCAT scores are not disclosed; SAT/ACT scores are accepted as an alternative to the LCAT. Older preparation sources describing 7 sections reflect a superseded format; the current official guidelines state 4 sections. Pattern checked 8 Nov 2026 — confirm on the official LUMS site before your test. For the full pattern and general test preparation, see the general entry test guide.

Q1. Choose the word nearest in meaning to "Frugal":
A) Wasteful
B) Thrifty
C) Generous
D) Rich
Correct answer: B — Thrifty
Explanation: "Frugal" means careful with money and not wasteful, i.e. thrifty; "wasteful" is its opposite.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q2. Choose the correctly spelt word:
A) Acommodate
B) Accomodate
C) Accommodate
D) Accomadate
Correct answer: C — Accommodate
Explanation: "Accommodate" is spelt with double c and double m: ac-com-mo-date.
Reference: Standard English spelling (Oxford dictionary); FSc English vocabulary lists.

Q3. Choose the correct sentence:
A) Neither the teacher nor the students was present.
B) Neither the teacher nor the students were present.
C) Neither the teacher nor the students is present.
D) Neither the teacher nor the students has been present.
Correct answer: B — Neither the teacher nor the students were present.
Explanation: With "neither…nor", the verb agrees with the nearer subject ("students", plural), so "were" is correct.
Reference: Standard English grammar (subject-verb agreement); FSc English grammar texts.

Q4. Choose the correct preposition: "She is good ___ mathematics."
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) for
Correct answer: B — at
Explanation: The standard idiom is "good at" a subject or skill.
Reference: Standard English usage (Oxford dictionary); FSc English grammar texts.

Q5. Read the passage and answer: "The new library opens at 8 a.m. and stays open until 10 p.m. on weekdays, but closes at 6 p.m. on weekends. During exam weeks, it remains open until midnight every day." During exam weeks, the library closes at:
A) 6 p.m.
B) 10 p.m.
C) Midnight
D) 8 a.m.
Correct answer: C — Midnight
Explanation: The passage states directly that during exam weeks the library "remains open until midnight every day".
Reference: Standard reading-comprehension practice (SAT-style passage questions); worked from the passage itself.

Q6. If 4x − 5 = 11, then x is:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Correct answer: C — 4
Explanation: 4x = 11 + 5 = 16, so x = 16 ÷ 4 = 4.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Linear Equations; standard algebra texts.

Q7. 20% of 450 is:
A) 80
B) 85
C) 90
D) 100
Correct answer: C — 90
Explanation: 20% of 450 = 0.20 × 450 = 90.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Percentages; standard arithmetic texts.

Q8. The area of a circle of radius 7 cm (use π = 22/7) is:
A) 144 cm²
B) 154 cm²
C) 164 cm²
D) 174 cm²
Correct answer: B — 154 cm²
Explanation: Area = πr² = (22/7) × 7² = (22/7) × 49 = 22 × 7 = 154 cm².
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Mensuration (Area of a Circle); standard geometry texts.

Q9. The next number in the series 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, … is:
A) 18
B) 20
C) 21
D) 25
Correct answer: C — 21
Explanation: The differences are 2, 3, 4, 5, so the next difference is 6: 15 + 6 = 21.
Reference: Standard quantitative-reasoning / number-series practice (SAT-style); worked independently.

Q10. A train travels 240 km in 3 hours. Its average speed is:
A) 70 km/h
B) 75 km/h
C) 80 km/h
D) 85 km/h
Correct answer: C — 80 km/h
Explanation: Speed = distance ÷ time = 240 ÷ 3 = 80 km/h.
Reference: FSc Physics, Motion; standard arithmetic texts.

Q11. Choose the word nearest in meaning to "Obstinate":
A) Flexible
B) Stubborn
C) Polite
D) Weak
Correct answer: B — Stubborn
Explanation: "Obstinate" means refusing to change one's mind or course of action, i.e. stubborn; "flexible" is its opposite.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q12. Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to "Transparent":
A) Clear
B) Obvious
C) Bright
D) Opaque
Correct answer: D — Opaque
Explanation: "Transparent" means allowing light through so objects can be seen clearly; its opposite is "opaque", which does not allow light through.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q13. Choose the correctly spelt word:
A) Occurrence
B) Occurence
C) Ocurrence
D) Occurrance
Correct answer: A — Occurrence
Explanation: "Occurrence" is spelt with double c and double r: oc-cur-rence.
Reference: Standard English spelling (Oxford dictionary); FSc English vocabulary lists.

Q14. Choose the correct sentence:
A) Neither of the answers are correct.
B) Neither of the answers were correct.
C) Neither of the answers is correct.
D) Neither of the answers have been correct.
Correct answer: C — Neither of the answers is correct.
Explanation: "Neither" is singular, so it takes the singular verb "is", even though "answers" is plural.
Reference: Standard English grammar (subject-verb agreement); FSc English grammar texts.

Q15. Choose the correct sentence:
A) The book, along with the pens, is on the table.
B) The book, along with the pens, are on the table.
C) The book, along with the pens, were on the table.
D) The book, along with the pens, have been on the table.
Correct answer: A — The book, along with the pens, is on the table.
Explanation: The phrase "along with the pens" does not change the singular subject "book", so the singular verb "is" is correct.
Reference: Standard English grammar (subject-verb agreement); FSc English grammar texts.

Q16. Choose the correct preposition: "He is interested ___ music."
A) on
B) at
C) for
D) in
Correct answer: D — in
Explanation: The standard idiom is "interested in" something.
Reference: Standard English usage (Oxford dictionary); FSc English grammar texts.

Q17. Choose the correct word: "The committee decided to postpone the meeting ___ further notice."
A) before
B) after
C) until
D) during
Correct answer: C — until
Explanation: "Until further notice" is the fixed idiom meaning up to the time when new information is given.
Reference: Standard English usage (Oxford dictionary); FSc English grammar texts.

Q18. Choose the correct sentence:
A) She is one of the students who have won the prize.
B) She is one of the students who has won the prize.
C) She is one of the students who is won the prize.
D) She is one of the students who was won the prize.
Correct answer: A — She is one of the students who have won the prize.
Explanation: The relative pronoun "who" refers to "students" (plural), so the plural verb "have" is correct.
Reference: Standard English grammar (relative clauses and agreement); FSc English grammar texts.

Q19. "Her candid remarks surprised everyone." The word "candid" here means:
A) Secretive
B) Rude
C) Clever
D) Frank
Correct answer: D — Frank
Explanation: "Candid" means truthful and straightforward, i.e. frank; it does not mean rude or secretive.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary in context (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q20. Read the passage and answer: "The town council planted two hundred trees along the river last spring. Within a year, birds returned to the area and the air felt cooler in summer. Residents now walk along the shaded path every evening." The trees were planted:
A) Last summer
B) Last spring
C) Last winter
D) Last autumn
Correct answer: B — Last spring
Explanation: The passage states directly that the trees were planted "last spring".
Reference: Standard reading-comprehension practice (SAT-style passage questions); worked from the passage itself.

Q21. Read the passage and answer: "Ayesha saved a small part of her pocket money every week. After six months she had enough to buy the storybook she wanted. She learned that small savings add up over time." The main idea of the passage is that:
A) Books are expensive
B) Pocket money should be spent quickly
C) Small regular savings can grow into a useful amount
D) Ayesha likes stories
Correct answer: C — Small regular savings can grow into a useful amount
Explanation: The passage shows Ayesha saving a little each week until she could afford the book, which illustrates that small savings add up.
Reference: Standard reading-comprehension practice (SAT-style passage questions); worked from the passage itself.

Q22. Choose the correct sentence:
A) By the time we arrived, the film already started.
B) By the time we arrived, the film had already started.
C) By the time we arrived, the film has already started.
D) By the time we arrived, the film is already starting.
Correct answer: B — By the time we arrived, the film had already started.
Explanation: The past perfect "had started" is needed because the film started before the past event of arriving.
Reference: Standard English grammar (tenses); FSc English grammar texts.

Q23. Choose the correct sentence:
A) If I were rich, I would travel the world.
B) If I am rich, I would travel the world.
C) If I was rich, I will travel the world.
D) If I will be rich, I would travel the world.
Correct answer: A — If I were rich, I would travel the world.
Explanation: In an unreal conditional about the present, "were" is used after "if" (subjunctive), with "would" in the main clause.
Reference: Standard English grammar (conditionals); FSc English grammar texts.

Q24. Choose the word nearest in meaning to "Enormous":
A) Tiny
B) Small
C) Moderate
D) Huge
Correct answer: D — Huge
Explanation: "Enormous" means very large, i.e. huge; "tiny" and "small" are opposites.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q25. Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to "Ancient":
A) Old
B) Modern
C) Early
D) Past
Correct answer: B — Modern
Explanation: "Ancient" means belonging to the very distant past; its opposite is "modern".
Reference: Standard English vocabulary (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q26. Choose the correct sentence:
A) The team are playing well today.
B) The team were playing well today.
C) The team is playing well today.
D) The team have playing well today.
Correct answer: C — The team is playing well today.
Explanation: "Team" is a collective noun acting as a single unit here, so it takes the singular verb "is".
Reference: Standard English grammar (collective nouns); FSc English grammar texts.

Q27. Choose the correctly spelt word:
A) Separate
B) Seperate
C) Separete
D) Seprate
Correct answer: A — Separate
Explanation: "Separate" is spelt s-e-p-a-r-a-t-e ("a rat" in the middle is a common memory aid).
Reference: Standard English spelling (Oxford dictionary); FSc English vocabulary lists.

Q28. Choose the correct sentence:
A) He asked me that I had finished the work.
B) He asked me what I had finished the work.
C) He asked me why I had finished the work.
D) He asked me if I had finished the work.
Correct answer: D — He asked me if I had finished the work.
Explanation: A yes/no question in reported speech is introduced by "if" (or "whether"), not by "that", "what" or "why".
Reference: Standard English grammar (reported speech); FSc English grammar texts.

Q29. "The new law will deter people from breaking the rules." The word "deter" here means:
A) Encourage
B) Prevent by fear of punishment
C) Reward
D) Ignore
Correct answer: B — Prevent by fear of punishment
Explanation: "Deter" means to discourage someone from doing something by making them afraid of the consequences.
Reference: Standard English vocabulary in context (Oxford dictionary); SAT-style verbal word lists.

Q30. Read the passage and answer: "Karim missed the bus on Monday, so he walked to school. The walk took him forty minutes, but he arrived before the bell rang. He decided to leave home earlier from then on." Why did Karim decide to leave home earlier?
A) He missed the bus and had a long walk
B) He liked walking
C) The bell rang late
D) His friends asked him to
Correct answer: A — He missed the bus and had a long walk
Explanation: The passage says Karim missed the bus and had to walk forty minutes, which is why he decided to leave earlier afterwards.
Reference: Standard reading-comprehension practice (SAT-style passage questions); worked from the passage itself.

Q31. If 3x + 7 = 22, then x is:
A) 5
B) 4
C) 6
D) 7
Correct answer: A — 5
Explanation: 3x = 22 − 7 = 15, so x = 15 ÷ 3 = 5.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Linear Equations; standard algebra texts.

Q32. The value of 2³ × 2² is:
A) 16
B) 64
C) 32
D) 10
Correct answer: C — 32
Explanation: 2³ × 2² = 2⁵ = 32 (add the indices when multiplying powers of the same base).
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Indices and Logarithms; standard algebra texts.

Q33. The slope of the line through (0, 0) and (4, 8) is:
A) 2
B) 1/2
C) 4
D) 8
Correct answer: A — 2
Explanation: Slope = (8 − 0) ÷ (4 − 0) = 8 ÷ 4 = 2.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Straight Lines; standard algebra texts.

Q34. The volume of a cube of side 6 cm is:
A) 36 cm³
B) 216 cm³
C) 108 cm³
D) 144 cm³
Correct answer: B — 216 cm³
Explanation: Volume of a cube = side³ = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216 cm³.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Mensuration (Volume of a Cube); standard geometry texts.

Q35. The mean of 5, 10, 15, 20 and 25 is:
A) 12
B) 15
C) 18
D) 20
Correct answer: B — 15
Explanation: Sum = 5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 = 75; mean = 75 ÷ 5 = 15.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Statistics (Mean); standard statistics texts.

Q36. The positive value of x if x² = 49 is:
A) −7
B) 7
C) 14
D) 49
Correct answer: B — 7
Explanation: x² = 49 gives x = ±7, so the positive value is 7.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Quadratic Equations; standard algebra texts.

Q37. 30% of 400 is:
A) 90
B) 100
C) 110
D) 120
Correct answer: D — 120
Explanation: 30% of 400 = 0.30 × 400 = 120.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Percentages; standard arithmetic texts.

Q38. Rs. 60 is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. The larger part is:
A) 36
B) 24
C) 30
D) 40
Correct answer: A — 36
Explanation: Total parts = 2 + 3 = 5; one part = 60 ÷ 5 = 12, so the larger part = 3 × 12 = 36.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Ratio and Proportion; standard arithmetic texts.

Q39. The perimeter of a rectangle of length 12 cm and width 5 cm is:
A) 30 cm
B) 60 cm
C) 34 cm
D) 17 cm
Correct answer: C — 34 cm
Explanation: Perimeter = 2 × (length + width) = 2 × (12 + 5) = 2 × 17 = 34 cm.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Mensuration (Perimeter); standard geometry texts.

Q40. If 2(x − 3) = 10, then x is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 9
D) 8
Correct answer: D — 8
Explanation: x − 3 = 10 ÷ 2 = 5, so x = 5 + 3 = 8.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Linear Equations; standard algebra texts.

Q41. If y = 3x + 2 and x = 4, then y is:
A) 12
B) 16
C) 14
D) 10
Correct answer: C — 14
Explanation: y = 3 × 4 + 2 = 12 + 2 = 14.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Functions; standard algebra texts.

Q42. The HCF of 12 and 18 is:
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 36
Correct answer: B — 6
Explanation: Factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 and of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18; the highest common factor is 6.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, HCF and LCM; standard arithmetic texts.

Q43. The LCM of 4 and 6 is:
A) 12
B) 24
C) 6
D) 18
Correct answer: A — 12
Explanation: Multiples of 4 are 4, 8, 12, 16, … and of 6 are 6, 12, 18, …; the lowest common multiple is 12.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, HCF and LCM; standard arithmetic texts.

Q44. Two angles of a triangle are 60° and 70°. The third angle is:
A) 40°
B) 60°
C) 110°
D) 50°
Correct answer: D — 50°
Explanation: The angles of a triangle add to 180°, so the third angle = 180° − 60° − 70° = 50°.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Geometry (Angles of a Triangle); standard geometry texts.

Q45. The simple interest on Rs. 1,000 at 5% per year for 2 years is:
A) Rs. 100
B) Rs. 50
C) Rs. 150
D) Rs. 200
Correct answer: A — Rs. 100
Explanation: Interest = (1,000 × 5 × 2) ÷ 100 = Rs. 100.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Simple Interest; standard arithmetic texts.

Q46. The coefficient of x in (x + 2)(x + 3) is:
A) 6
B) 5
C) 2
D) 3
Correct answer: B — 5
Explanation: (x + 2)(x + 3) = x² + 5x + 6, so the coefficient of x is 5.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Polynomials; standard algebra texts.

Q47. The median of 3, 7, 9, 12 and 15 is:
A) 7
B) 12
C) 9
D) 10
Correct answer: C — 9
Explanation: The numbers are already in order; the middle (3rd) value is 9.
Reference: FSc Mathematics, Statistics (Median); standard statistics texts.

Q48. The circumference of a circle of radius 14 cm (use π = 22/7) is:
A) 44 cm
B) 616 cm
C) 154 cm
D) 88 cm
Correct answer: D — 88 cm
Explanation: Circumference = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 14 = 2 × 44 = 88 cm.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Mensuration (Circumference); standard geometry texts.

Q49. If 5 pens cost Rs. 75, the cost of 8 pens is:
A) Rs. 120
B) Rs. 100
C) Rs. 110
D) Rs. 130
Correct answer: A — Rs. 120
Explanation: One pen costs 75 ÷ 5 = Rs. 15, so 8 pens cost 8 × 15 = Rs. 120.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Unitary Method; standard arithmetic texts.

Q50. The value of 2/3 + 1/6 is:
A) 3/9
B) 1/2
C) 5/6
D) 3/4
Correct answer: C — 5/6
Explanation: 2/3 = 4/6, so 4/6 + 1/6 = 5/6.
Reference: Matric Mathematics, Fractions; standard arithmetic texts.